Đề 3: Luyện thi THPTQG môn Anh năm 2018

Đề 3: Luyện thi THPTQG môn Anh năm 2018. Đề gồm 50 câu hỏi, các em học sinh làm trong thời gian 60 phút. Khi làm xong, các em sẽ biết số điểm của mình và đáp án các câu hỏi. Hãy nhấn chữ bắt đầu ở phía dưới.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: Hair color is one of ________characteristics to be used in identifying people

• A. the most obvious
• B. obviously the most
• C. the most obviously
• D. most obvious

Question 2: Alan and Susie_______ an argument. They are not speaking to each other.

• A. might has
• B. might had
• C. must had
• D. must have had

Question 3: There are five letters in the word “fresh”. One of the letters is a vowel. ________ are consonants.

• A. The others
• B. The other
• C. Another
• D. Others

Question 4: The conference was organized for all of the ________ in the state.

• A. mathematics teachers
• B. mathematics’ teachers
• C. mathematic teachers
• D. teachers of mathematic

Question 5: He drove through the town________a hundred miles an hour

• A. with
• B. Ø
• C. in
• D. at

Question 6: ________little we may like it, old age comes to most of us

• A. As
• B. However
• C. Despite
• D. So

Question 7: She finds his behavior towards her quite ________ . He treats her like an idiot.

• A. offending
• B. insulting
• C. crude
• D. ill- mannered

Question 8: - “Did you hear that Margaret's plan is snowbound in Chicago?” - “We suggested that she_____a train but she wouldn’t listen.”

• A. took
• B. would take
• C. had taken
• D. take

Question 9: The bus was crammed________students who were making________ the central park wher the festival would take place.

• A. with/for
• B. with/into
• C. in/for
• D. of/out

Question 10: “Where’s that _______ dress that your grandma gave you?”

• A. pink long lovely silk
• B. lovely long pink silk
• C. long pink silk lovely
• D. lovely pink long silk

Question 11: I’m not keen on________control of the project to a relative newcomer

• A. alloting
• B. charging
• C. understanding
• D. entrusting

Question 12: The rain seems to have set________for the evening

• A. about
• B. upon
• C. in
• D. down

Question 13: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

• A. popular
• B. reduction
• C. financial
• D. romantic

Question 14: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

• A. prospect
• B. guidance
• C. involve
• D. future

Question 15: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

• A. feminine
• B. spine
• C. undermine
• D. Valentine

Question 16: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

• A. without
• B. thank
• C. although
• D. these

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 17: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the 2010 - World Cup matches so annoyed

• A. have found
• B. monotonous
• C. 2010 - World Cup
• D. annoyed

Question 18: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and the technological institutions if they are to preserve environment

• A. have to make
• B. changes
• C. the technological institutions
• D. preserve

Question 19: One of the students who are being considered for the scholarship are from this university

• A. One of
• B. are being
• C. for the
• D. are

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - “Goodbye,Jane!” - _________

• A. So long
• B. Yeah
• C. The same
• D. So so

Question 21: - My parents got divorced when I was 5 - _________

• A .How did it happened?
• B. They shouldn’t do that.
• C. Oh, I’m sorry.
• D .You must have been shocked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Childbearing is the women's most wonderful role.

• A. Giving birth to a baby
• B. Bring up a child
• C. Educating a child
• D. Having no child

Question 23: In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew 25 years ago.

• A. first-year students
• B. new students
• C. new counselors
• D. young professors

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: I have lunch with a convivial group of my friend

• A. large
• B. unsociable
• C. lively
• D. cold

Question 25: I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work.

• A. very scared
• B. very bored
• C. very idle
• D. very busy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Under no circumstances should you phone the police.

• A. You should think hard before phoning the police
• B. You should never phone the police.
• C. You should phone the police as soon as possible.
• D. If you can not control the situation, you should phone the police.

Question 27: He was suspended for two matches for swearing at the referee.

• A. Swearing at the referee earned him a suspension for two matches.
• B. If he hadn’t sworn at the referee he wouldn’t have been suspended for two matches.
• C. He sworn at the referee for his suspension for two matches.
• D. Both A and B are correct.

Question 28: The movie bears little resemblance to the original novel.

• A. The movie and the original novel differ in some ways.
• B. The movie is quite different from the original novel.
• C. The movie is very similar to the original novel.
• D. The movie and the original novel resemble in many ways.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: She didn’t want to sell her house. She borrowed a lot of money from the bank.

• A. We sold her house, but she borrowed a lot of money from the bank.
• B. Rather than selling her house, she borrowed a lot of money from the bank.
• C. In spite of selling her house, she borrowed a lot of money from the bank.
• D. She didn’t sell her house as she borrowed a lot of money from the bank.

Question 30: After Jane had seen her best friend off at the air port, she came back to work

• A. Coming back to work, Jane had seen her best friend off at the air port.
• B. Came back to work, Jane saw her best friend off at the air port.
• C. Having seen her best friend off at the air port, Jane came back to work.
• D. Seeing her best friend off at the air port, Jane came back to work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Question 31: The British began to take trips to the seaside after the creation of bank holidays in 1871, Coastal towns such as Bournemouth and Blackpool enjoyed great popularity with families seeking the benefits of sea- water bathing and (31)_____ air. However, when the airline industry started to offer low (32)_____flights to sunnier destinations in the 1970s, many British people started taking their holidays abroad. This resulted in a lack of investment into seaside resorts and before (33)_____many of them were no longer the attractive, lively places they once were. However, improved water quality, cleaner beaches and warmer British summers have all helped to attract people back to the British seaside. Also, many people are now preferring to take shorter (34)_____and don’t want to waste time queueing at airports. (35)_____ to say, facilities, attractions, and the quality of hotels and guesthouses in many resorts have improved dramatically

• A. cool
• B. fresh
• C. natural
• D. pure

Question 32: The British began to take trips to the seaside after the creation of bank holidays in 1871, Coastal towns such as Bournemouth and Blackpool enjoyed great popularity with families seeking the benefits of sea- water bathing and (31)_____ air. However, when the airline industry started to offer low (32)_____flights to sunnier destinations in the 1970s, many British people started taking their holidays abroad. This resulted in a lack of investment into seaside resorts and before (33)_____many of them were no longer the attractive, lively places they once were. However, improved water quality, cleaner beaches and warmer British summers have all helped to attract people back to the British seaside. Also, many people are now preferring to take shorter (34)_____and don’t want to waste time queueing at airports. (35)_____ to say, facilities, attractions, and the quality of hotels and guesthouses in many resorts have improved dramatically

• A. expense
• B. money
• C. price
• D. cost

Question 33: The British began to take trips to the seaside after the creation of bank holidays in 1871, Coastal towns such as Bournemouth and Blackpool enjoyed great popularity with families seeking the benefits of sea- water bathing and (31)_____ air. However, when the airline industry started to offer low (32)_____flights to sunnier destinations in the 1970s, many British people started taking their holidays abroad. This resulted in a lack of investment into seaside resorts and before (33)_____many of them were no longer the attractive, lively places they once were. However, improved water quality, cleaner beaches and warmer British summers have all helped to attract people back to the British seaside. Also, many people are now preferring to take shorter (34)_____and don’t want to waste time queueing at airports. (35)_____ to say, facilities, attractions, and the quality of hotels and guesthouses in many resorts have improved dramatically

• A. soon
• B. while
• C. time
• D. long

Question 34: The British began to take trips to the seaside after the creation of bank holidays in 1871, Coastal towns such as Bournemouth and Blackpool enjoyed great popularity with families seeking the benefits of sea- water bathing and (31)_____ air. However, when the airline industry started to offer low (32)_____flights to sunnier destinations in the 1970s, many British people started taking their holidays abroad. This resulted in a lack of investment into seaside resorts and before (33)_____many of them were no longer the attractive, lively places they once were. However, improved water quality, cleaner beaches and warmer British summers have all helped to attract people back to the British seaside. Also, many people are now preferring to take shorter (34)_____and don’t want to waste time queueing at airports. (35)_____ to say, facilities, attractions, and the quality of hotels and guesthouses in many resorts have improved dramatically

• A. intervals
• B. stops
• C. breaks
• D. pauses

Question 35: The British began to take trips to the seaside after the creation of bank holidays in 1871, Coastal towns such as Bournemouth and Blackpool enjoyed great popularity with families seeking the benefits of sea- water bathing and (31)_____ air. However, when the airline industry started to offer low (32)_____flights to sunnier destinations in the 1970s, many British people started taking their holidays abroad. This resulted in a lack of investment into seaside resorts and before (33)_____many of them were no longer the attractive, lively places they once were. However, improved water quality, cleaner beaches and warmer British summers have all helped to attract people back to the British seaside. Also, many people are now preferring to take shorter (34)_____and don’t want to waste time queueing at airports. (35)_____ to say, facilities, attractions, and the quality of hotels and guesthouses in many resorts have improved dramatically

• A. Useless
• B. Unnecessary
• C. Needless
• D. found

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

Nowadays, multiplex cinemas are a permanent and entrenched feature of shopping malls all over America and are becoming increasingly popular throughout the world. Many of the theaters are being expanded into entertainment complexes complete with virtual roller coasters, video, arcades and food courts as well as a dizzying array of movie selections. At the Sony IMAX Theater in New York City, the building’s interior is a strange merging of high tech and nostalgia. As Mary Jane Dodge, the IMAX project director for Sony Theaters explains, “This is an homage to the great theaters of the past. With the Sony IMAX Theater, we want to take the past into the future.” Walking into the complex, patrons aremet by a 65-foot color mural collage of the great movie palaces. Downstairs, a smaller black-and-white mural depicts behind-the-scenes shots from famous films. There is even a column used as a vertical timeline which traces the major events in cinema history.

Although the showcase of the complex is the IMAX Theater with its impressive 80-by-100-foot- screen, personal sound devices, 3-D goggles, there are twelve additional theaters, ranging from 150 to 900 seats. They incorporate advanced technology into an architectural space designed “to create a partner in the architectural firm that designed the complex. Each theater, designed around Hindu, Chinese, Moroccan, Olympic, Egyptian and other similar themes, is replete with ornate entrance portals and interior detailing, as well as state-of-the-art lighting and sound.

Question 36: The word “virtual” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to ________?

• A. dangerous
• B. high-flying
• C. powerful
• D. illusory

Question 37: With what topic is the second paragraph mainly concerned?

• A. The design of the IMAX complex
• B. What is incorporated in the IMAX complex
• C. The architecture of the IMAX complex
• D. Advanced technology in the IMAX complex

Question 38: From the passage it can be inferred that single movie theaters _______

• A. have an old-fashioned design
• B. mainly satisfy the general public
• C. provide good entertainment value
• D. provide a high level of nostalgia

Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT in the Sony IMAX Theater?

• A. High tech equipment
• B. Black and white mural
• C. 65-foot color collage
• D. Colored film photographs

Question 40: The word” This” in bold in paragraph 1 refers to_______.

• A. New York City
• B. the building’s interior
• C. the IMAX Theater
• D. an homage

Question 41: What does Mary Jane Dodge mean when she says “we want to take the past into the future.”?

• A. Old movie theaters should be modernized.
• B. Old theaters should show modern films.
• C. Old films should be shown at the IMAX Theater.
• D. The IMAX Theater pays respect to the old films.

Question 42: How is Robert Green’s movie experience primarily different from a normal visit to a movie?

• A. It shows many aspects of the cinema and its history.
• B. It demonstrates all the latest technology.
• C. It gives the possibility of seeing unusual films.
• D. It offers a variety of movies to choose from.

Question 43: By building cinemas around different themes, it can be inferred that the designers wanted to______.

• A. indicate the universality of the cinema
• B. add an extra dimension to movie going
• C. demonstrate which cinemas were showing foreign films
• D. try out some new architectural ideas

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50

According to recent scientific theory, it is probable that life will develop on planets that have a favorable environment-planets similar to ours, that orbits stars like our sun. Since there are about 400 billion stars in out galaxy alone, that means there are huge number of planets like ours that could sustain life. Planets with advanced civilizations are likely to be widely scattered throughout the universe. In the past four decades, humans on Earth have begun to search for these civilizations. This search is called SETI, the Search for Extra- Terrestrial Intelligence, and it has been conducted largely by searching for radio waves emitted from civilizations on other planets.

In 1960, Dr. Frank Drake made the first attempt at SETI, by conducting a radio searches using an 85- foot antenna of the National Radio Astronomy Observatory in West Virginia. This search, called Project Ozma, observed two stars about 12 light years away. Since that time, more than 60 searches have been conducted by dozens of astronomers in at least eight countries. All searches, thus far, have faced many limitations: they used equipment that lack sensitivity, they did not search frequently, they covered little of the sky, or they could search for only a few types of signals or in a few directions. The searches did turn up signals of unknown origin, but data collected in these searches were often processed long after the observation. In order to be sure that a signal is from another civilizations, it has to be independently verified and shown to originate from a point beyond the solar system. Later searches for the unknown signals turned up nothing.

Project Phoenix, the latest SETI effort, consists orders of magnitude more comprehensive than any of those previous experiments, and uses the world’s largest antennas. It will scrutinize the regions around 1,000 nearby Sun-like stars, and immediately test candidate signals to see if they are Project Phoenix in origin. It is important that Project Phoenix continue to operate, because radio interference from Earth sources is growing, and may soon interfere with our ability to detect possible extraterrestrial signals. In order to overcome this growing interference, ever better antenna systems are being developed

Question 44: What does the passage mainly discussed?

• A. possible explanations for radio signals of unknown origin
• B. the origin of life on other planets
• C. the life stories of scientists involved in SETI
• D. efforts to search for signals from extraterrestrial civilizations

Question 45: What subject would most likely be the topic of the paragraph following this paragraph?

• A. a description of the most sophisticated radio antennas
• B. what Dr. Frank Drake and other well-known scientists think of Project Ozma
• C. a description of the most recent efforts of Project Phoenix
• D. a description of several other failed attempts to pick extraterrestrial radio signals

Question 46: “Verified” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______

• A. received
• B. underlined
• C. checked
• D. discovered

Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that a major limitation of earlier searches for alien radio signals was______

• A. the limited number of signals that might be extraterrestial
• B. the slowness of the verification process
• C. the lack of scientific interest in this topic
• D. the difficulty of obtaining government funding

Question 48: Which of the following would NOT distinguish Project Phoenix from previous SETI experiments?

• A. It can only search in a few directions
• B. It uses the world’s largest antennas
• C. It immediately tests candidate signals
• D. It is comprehensive

Question 49: “Scrutinize” in bold in the last paragraph is closest meaning to______

• A. process
• B. establish
• C. examine
• D. orbit

Question 50: Where is this passage most likely seen in?

• A. a book of short stories.
• B. a personal website
• C. a popular science journal
• D. an editorial in a local newspaper